Aramaic idioms

 

Aramaic idioms

Before I venture into some of the Aramaic idioms written in the bible, let me give some background on the meaning of idioms.

The bible is FULL of idioms. 

When the bible was translated from Aramaic => Hebrew => Greek => Latin => English => other languages of the world, many of these idioms have been wrongly translated, and misunderstood because they were not explained in its original Aramaic context and culture of the Near Eastern people. 

(That was one of the reasons why we have so many different WRONG translations and interpretations of the bible today, resulting in about 40,000 Christian denominations, each claiming to be better and more correct than the other. This is still creating mis-understanding among churches and believers.)

In one of my previous writing, I gave a personal example of how mistranslation happened:

https://advancingtruth.blogspot.com/2021/04/timeline-of-written-translation-history.html

Some years ago, I was under the tutelage of a Kiwi missionary in New Zealand. He told me that in one area of his mission, there was no translated version of the bible for their language, and as a result, they had to translate the New Testament for them to understand. However, these people never knew what sheep is, and how they look like or behave. So in order to make them understand, they replaced the word "sheep" with "pigs", which is their most prized possession.... hahaha..

Imagine us reading that "Jesus came for the lost pigs of Israel" in Matthew 15:24 in their bible.

Question: What are idioms?

Answer:

1. Idioms are words with a form of expression that is used specifically to a particular language, people or people groups.

2. Idioms are part of the language and dialect of those people that live in a particular culture or location of their country.

3. Idioms are not easy to understand if you do not understand the culture and the context of the language of that particular group of people.

4. Idioms cannot be translated literally into another language.

5. Idioms are expressions of speech that say one thing but actually mean something else. The meaning is totally different from the individual words forming the idiom.

6. Idioms are used commonly by the people that were living during that particular era, and can be understood easily because of their popular use. They are non-complicated normal words that have a special meaning that is known by almost everyone of their similar language culture.

7. The Near Eastern people (also the Middle Eastern people) use idioms in their  language on normal, secular and sacred usages on a daily basis.

8. The contemporary Western civilizations use less idioms in their languages, and remain quite ignorant of the Near Eastern idioms.

In view of the above, I should say that there are also idioms in all language groups in the world. Idioms have always been with us since antiquity till today. It’s a matter of more or less usage and how common these idioms are.

I am a Chinese living in Malaysia, and my father and ancestors come from China. So you can say that we are an Eastern people group. Even within our Chinese language, we have myriads of idioms that a Western English-educated person will never understand unless it is explained to him/her.

(Just a note: that among the various dialects of the Chinese people, such as the Cantonese, Hakka, Hokkien, Hainanese, etc. there are also unique idioms that are found particularly within that dialect only.)

Examples of English Idioms

(These English idioms are commonly used, and we take it for granted that when we use them, everyone should understand what we mean. But when I translated it literally word for word and used it in another language like Indonesian or French, it may be disastrous, causing major misunderstand.)

1. Idiom: “See eye to eye”

1. This means “to agree with somebody”.

2. Example: The two friends can finally see eye to eye on their new venture.

2. Idiom: “speaking of the devil”

1. This means “the person you were referring to suddenly appears at that moment.”

2. Example: Sam, speaking of the devil, I was just telling him about the direction to your house.

3. Idiom: “Once in a blue moon”

1. This means “an event that doesn’t happen frequently.”

2. Example: Once in a blue moon, we can give ourselves an expensive treat.

4. Idiom: “cost an arm and a leg”

1. This means “something that is very expensive.”

2. Example: That car cost me an arm and a leg.

5. Idiom: “let the cat out of the bag”

1. This means “to accidentally let out a secret to others.”

2. Example: He let the cat out of the bag to his competitor about his financial plans.

6. Idiom: “to kill two birds with one stone”

1. This means “to resolve two problems at one go.”

2. Example: By eating healthily to reduce weight, he killed two birds with one stone, when his skin condition also disappeared.

7. Idiom: “beat around the bush”

1. This means: “not speaking directly about the issue or main topic.”

2. Example: He told his employee to stop beating around the bush and quickly say what is on his mind.

Examples of Cantonese (dialect of Chinese language) idioms

1. Idiom: “pulling a cow up a tree” or “laai ngau soeng syu”

1. This means: “having a vain attempt at a difficult task”

2. Example: Getting his son to fold his blanket in the morning is like “laai ngau soeng syu”.

2. Idiom: “pretend to be a ghost and pretend to be a horse” or “baan gwai baan maa”

1. This means: “to deliberately trick or deceive somebody”

2. Example: He dressed up as a girl to deliberately “baan gwai baan maa” to the headmistress.

3. Idiom: “eat a dead cat” or “sik sei maau”

1. This means: “becoming a scapegoat or tricked into taking the blame for something not their fault”

2. Example: His mother was very angry at him for dirtying the floor but actually he was “sik sei maau” for his sister.

4. Idiom: “greedy devil” or “waai sik gwai”

1. This means: “being a glutton”

2. Example: He rushed for the food like a “waai sik gwai”.

5. Idiom: “to throw a paper aeroplane” or “fong fei gei”

1. This means: “to break a promise, a commitment, or fail to turn up for an appointment”

2. Example: He really “fong fei gei” and didn’t even call when he missed our date.

6. Idiom: “a two headed snake” or “leuhng tauh seh”

1. This means: “a person who betrays and works for both sides in a deal”

2. Example: Don’t believe everything he said because he is a “leuhng tauh seh”.

7. Idiom: ” to eat slippers rice” or “sihk to haai faahn”

1. This means: “a man who is dependent on a woman for support”

2. Example: He lazes around the house everyday since he is good at “sihk to haai faahn”.

I believe that you can understand more about idioms now, and as we proceed to understand Aramaic idioms in the bible, you may do one or more of the following:

1. Label me as teaching false doctrine,

2. Refuse to accept the truth because of your personal opaque excuses,

3. Appreciate that the bible was written in an Aramaic context, within their language and culture, and the use of Aramaic idioms was very common within their common period.

There are literally more than a thousand Aramaic idioms in the bible and readers have mistakenly understood these idioms “literally”. Some translators have done a great job translating them accurately word for word but by taking them literally, the actual meanings have been interpreted wrongly.

I will address some of these idioms in future writings.

Extra:

1. How to interpret the bible by Charles Meek

https://advancingtruth.blogspot.com/2020/05/how-to-interpret-bible.html

Aramaic: Did God FORSAKE Jesus at the cross?

 

Aramaic: Did God FORSAKE Jesus at the cross?

Have you ever thought about this, that the God who is the source of abundant mercies, could FORSAKE Jesus when he was on the cross?

Didn't Jesus obeyed the Father's will by accepting the coming crucifixion as in Matthew 26:39?

Mat 26:39  And going a little farther he fell on his face and prayed, saying, “My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will, but as you will.” 

My 1st question: Jesus was at the cross, and that was His most difficult time for His earthly life, and would God hold back His comfort and His presence, just when Jesus needed it the most? (Many believers also asked this question when they are going through times of difficulties).

My 2nd question: Is God setting a bad example to other parents? What kind of loving father would abandon his son or daughter, their own flesh and blood, just at the moment of great suffering?


But many are shocked when they read Matthew 27:46 KJV,

Mat 27:46  And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? 


What Say You

Some say, Oh, you have to accept that by "faith" without questioning.

Is that how you are supposed to understand the bible?

Are you supposed to park your brains outside and be mindless and un-knowledgeable about difficult or seemingly contradictory bible passages?

NO, of course not. God will neither give you eyes and ask you not to use them, nor give you brains and put it away.

The Real Question is: "WAS JESUS FORSAKEN"?


Important: This phrase: "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani" is an original native Aramaic language that Jesus uttered. 

(For those of you who needs to know, that the Aramaic writing is not in alphabets a,b,c, d etc. The gospel writers are using phonetics / 
sounds to mimic the original Aramaic pronunciations. 

So some translations show "Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani" or "Eli! Eli! L’mah sh’vaktani" or "Eli, Eli, lemah sabachthani!" or "Iyl! Iyl! Lamana Shabaqthani" or "'el, ’el, l’mana shwaqthani", to try to retain the cry of Jesus in His native language.)

The bible verse was translated from the original ARAMAIC => HEBREW => GREEK => LATIN => OLD/NEW ENGLISH => other languages of the modern world. 

In the process of translations, the meanings, intentions and context of the words are ALWAYS altered knowingly or unknowingly by the translators, so it is always wise and right to go back to the original that is Aramaic. (This applies to all the bible writings besides Mat 27:46).



Is It a Question or Declaration?

I want you to understand that the KJV version of Mat 27:46 presents Jesus' utterance as a "question". It reads as if Jesus was questioning 
God, Why? Why?, as if Jesus did not understand what was happening to him at that moment.

However, in the original Aramaic language, it is NOT a "question" BUT a "declaration".

Tanslation of the Aramaic into English puts it like this:

“’el, ’el, l’mana shwaqthani: O God! O God! To what [a purpose] You have kept me!”

or according to Lamsa traslation:

Matthew 27:46 - And about the ninth hour, Jesus cried out with a loud voice and said, Eli, Eli, lmana shabachthani! which means, My God, my God, for this I was kept!

Dr. Lamsa adds a footnote to the last part of Jesus’ exclamation and retranslates it as “for this was my destiny!”



IMPORTANT: This takes on a whole DIFFERENT Meaning:

That means Jesus made a crying declaration that He knows that the crucifixion was the very reason for Him to live and to die. 

Isn't this consistent with the rest of the gospel writings, where Jesus already knew that He is to be crucified soon. This was the very purpose that Jesus came physically, to die crucified. He knew His purpose, and He kept to His mission. He even rebuked those who objected to His purpose and mission. Jesus was very focused on the crucifixion at the cross.

A Victorious Cry and not a Forsaken Cry

Jesus Cry was a Victorious Cry and not a Forsaken Cry. God did NOT Forsake or abandon Jesus on the cross.

Another translation from Aramaic to English puts it like this: (Rocco Errico's translation). (Rocco Errico is still living today as a foremost 
authority on bible from Aramaic to modern literal English).

 “O Sustainer! O Sustainer! To what [a purpose] You have left me!”

Rocco's note: The word “left” in this context does not mean “forsaken or abandoned.” It means “remaining to fulfill an end or a destiny.”


[In gospel of Mark 15:34, it records the same utterance. However the writer uses the East Aramaic dialect for God, alaha, and not ’el.]


An Ancient Commentary

Look at An Ancient Commentary dated 850 AD written on an ancient scroll and entirely in the Aramaic language entitled:

“The Testimony [or Evidence] from the Book of Commentaries of Lord Ishodad of Merv, Bishop of Hadatha, Beth Naharain [Mesoptamia] 
850 C.E., Bishop of the Church of the East.”

This was a hand-written commentary explaining Jesus' words spoken when he was on the cross. The translation from Aramaic to English is 
by Rocco Errico. Errico added that "The English rendering appears clumsy because I want to retain the thrust and intent of the writer. As much as possible, I give a word-for-word translation, retaining its original style of punctuation."

Errico's translation of the writings of Ishodad is as follows:

[ ...The explanation of ’el, ’el, l’mana shwaktani: Not at all was he forsaken by the Godhead. Not even during suffering nor during death 
because the Godhead was always with him - in suffering and on the cross and in death and in the grave;

And very God Himself raised him in power and in glory as in the psalm of David: For You have not left my soul in sheol: And neither have You allowed Your holy one to see corruption...]


Note: Jesus was not at all forsaken by God. God was always with Jesus in suffering, on the cross, in death and in the grave.


That is the Truth:

God did not Forsake Jesus on the cross and God never forsakes anyone at anytime, never in the past, and never in the future. His Truth, His Power and His Presence is forever with us.

Aramaic: Jealous God OR Zealous God

 

Aramaic: Jealous God OR Zealous God

Have you ever been puzzled by this verse in 

Exodus 20:5: “For I the Lord [Yahweh] thy God am a jealous God.” 

And again in:

Exodus 34:14 “for the Lord [Yahweh] whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God.” 

But John says, “God is love” in 1 John 4:8. “Love” is a synonym for “God.” 

But is the infinite Presence (God) really pure, unconditional love, or does God (love) express jealousy? 

If so, of whom or of what is God jealous? Is the love of God limited by jealousy? Does God, as love, evidence Itself as jealousy?


How to understand this problem of God’s jealousy? 

Understand that the word "jealous" in the above verses comes from the original Aramaic word "Tanana".

Tanana in Aramaic means “zealous,” “ardent desire,” and “jealous.”

Therefore, a more appropriate translation of what God told Moses is:

“because I am the Lord [Yahweh] your God, a Zealous God.”

(Ex. 20:5, Aramaic text, Errico translation.)

“Zealous” denotes a divine care. Yahweh God was zealous for his people. Law, order, justice, and righteousness were to reign among the 
Hebrews.

Then again, the King James Version says: “for thou shalt worship no other god; for the Lord [Yahweh] whose name is Jealous, is a jealous 
God.” 

However, the Aramaic text reads: “For you shall worship no other god; for the Lord [Yahweh] whose name is Zealous, is a zealous God.”
(Ex. 34:14, Aramaic text, Errico translation.)

What is most interesting is that the Hebrew noun kin’ah in the above verses also means “Zealous.”

According to Jewish commentators, the rendering of the noun kin’ah as “jealous” when it relates to divine disfavor has Nothing in common 
with our English word “jealousy.”

(Commentary by Rabbi Dr. S. Fisch, M.A., Ezekiel: with Hebrew Text and English Translation).

So what we have learnt in the past was a translation error.

Catholic Church: Using Aramaic to understand true meaning of scripture

Catholic Church: Using Aramaic to understand true meaning of scripture

In 1943 a Roman Catholic encyclical (circular) issued by the Pope (Pope Pius XII) stressed the need for interpreting Holy Scripture to apply its lessons to then existing conditions. The encyclical emphasized the importance of studying the biblical languages of “Aramaic and Hebrew as a sound basis for understanding sacred Scripture.”

Aramaic was the tongue spoken by Jesus Christ. And in 1971, the Roman Catholic faith placed greater emphasis on the Bible.

The Vatican Ecumenical Council put the Bible in a place of prime importance in the Church. No longer do Roman Catholic biblical experts treat it as though it were factual in every detail. Like their Protestant colleagues, they are investigating the possibility that the Bible expresses ideas rather than clear-cut history. They are digging into Hebrew and Aramaic texts. They are searching for meanings perhaps still hidden.


Taken from: Daily American (Newspaper): Rome, Italy, July 10, 1971.

Aramaic: "Lead us not into temptation" (Mat 6:13)

 

Aramaic: "Lead us not into temptation" (Mat 6:13)

Have you ever wondered why Jesus taught us to pray, “lead us not into temptation”? Does this imply that God may lead us into trouble? Is God ambivalent? Having mixed contradictory intentions?

Why did the writer cited that Jesus taught his disciples to beseech the Father not to lead them into temptation?

Did Jesus really said “lead us not into temptation”? NO. 

In Aramaic he said "wla talan", meaning, “And do not let us enter.”

So what Jesus truly said was: “And do not let us enter temptation.” 

The meaning is clear. Jesus, through his prayer, teaches us to remain alert so that an alluring trap (temptation) may not ensnare us.

Ref: Lamsa translation of the Lord’s Prayer

This is a picture of the original text in Aramaic English interlinear:

Matthew 6:13

(updated: 23-7-2021)

WHY ARAMAIC?

 WHY ARAMAIC?

BIBLE BACKGROUND = SEMITIC BACKGROUND

It is importance for us to know that the bible was written in a Semitic background. And to understand the bible better and most important CORRECTLY, we need to understand the Semitic background better.

(WARNING/DANGER: By understanding the bible writers' narratives CORRECTLY, you may have to change most of your past understanding of the bible that came from the Institutional "church", the Americanized "church" or the Western "church", the religiosity of "Christianity", teachings that you have swallowed in "lock, stock and barrel", wrong translations of the bible, and wholesale consumerism of eschatology, dispensationalism and futurism... Steven Wong).

Q: What is Semitic?

A: The word "Semitic" and "Semite" refers to the behavior and beliefs of the Near Eastern Jews who kept all the customs, practices and manners of the ancient Middle East people. (In addition, it can also refers to other Semitic peoples like the Assyrians, Syrians (or Arameans), Chaldeans, Arabs and other Semitic races.)

(Addition note: Try to do a Google on the timeline of civilisations to understand the period of existence of these people groups). 


Q: Where do you get the word "Semitic"?

A: The original spelling of "Semitic" was "Shemitic" which is derived from the word "Shem", who was one of the sons of Noah (Genesis 5:32).


Q: Which countries are in the Near East?

A: According to the National Geographic Society, the terms Near East and Middle East refers to the same territories and are "generally accepted as the countries of the Arabian Peninsula, Cyprus, Egypt, Iraq, Iran, Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Palestinian territories, Syria, and Turkey".

Attached is a map of the Near Eastern countries during the times of Jesus:

However, through the millenniums and centuries, the borders of the Semitic countries kept on changing, depending on which country conquers which country, and which civilisation comes after which civilisation. After each conquest, their leaders will redraw their boundaries.


Q: Then why Aramaic?

A: Aramaic was one of the main Semitic languages that was widely used during the periods from the times of Abraham to the times of Jesus.

There are 3 main Semitic languages i.e. Aramaic, Hebrew and Arabic, that were used among the Near Eastern countries, but the most popular was Aramaic. 

The Old Testament (Jews called the OT "Tanakh") was written in an Aramaic Context. The New Testament was written in an Aramaic Context. The prophets of the Old Testament, and Jesus and his disciples, ALL spoke in Aramaic. 

Of course, they also can speak Hebrew domestically, but Aramaic was their official language, as it were. Some can also understand Greek, due to the earlier influence of Greek conquerors.

The bible is a compilation of many books (from 66 to 88 books, depending on which denomination you are from) and it is a Near Eastern book written to Near Eastern people in their Aramaic context. It is NOT written to the Western world of today!. It is primarily written to Semitic people in their Semitic language.


Q: Were the Old Testament books written in Aramaic or Hebrew?

A: The Old Testament was written in Aramaic and Hebrew BUT you need to understand that Hebrew was derived from Aramaic. Aramaic is the root language of Hebrew, and some scholars say that up to 70% of Hebrew words are similar to Aramaic words. They shared many similarities, but yet are distinctly separate languages. We will come across some of these later. 

Some of the Aramaic documents (written on parchment) were lost or destroyed for centuries until recent discoveries during these last 2 centuries showed that many were written in Aramaic.

Some verses in some translations of the English OT refer to "Aramaic" as "Syrian" or "Chaldee", and this is wrong. Recent Hebrew and English translations have corrected these. (Such as 2 Kings 18:26; Ezra 4:7; Isaiah 36:11; Daniel 2:4)

2Ki 18:26  Then Eliakim the son of Hilkiah, and Shebnah, and Joah, said to the Rabshakeh, “Please speak to your servants in Aramaic, for we understand it. Do not speak to us in the language of Judah within the hearing of the people who are on the wall.” 

Ezr 4:7  In the days of Artaxerxes, Bishlam and Mithredath and Tabeel and the rest of their associates wrote to Artaxerxes king of Persia. The letter was written in Aramaic and translated. 

Dan 2:4  Then the Chaldeans said to the king in Aramaic, “O king, live forever! Tell your servants the dream, and we will show the interpretation.” 


Q: Were the New Testament books written in Aramaic or Greek?

A: Aramaic was the tongue of the Jews at that time. The New Testament was written in Aramaic and Greek. The Near Eastern Jews were in a transition from Aramaic => Hebrew =>  Greek. This is due to the powerful country of Greece, and later the Roman empire, that were interested to conquer over all of the Near East. 

(Remember Alexander the Great, the Greek conqueror. When he died young, his territories were weakened and split, and the Roman emperors took advantage to conquer over them).

Much of the recent Greek and English translations of the NT are beginning to correct their texts to Aramaic by retaining their original quotation and meaning. This I presume is to not lose the essence of the intent, message and meaning of the original writer. (Such as John 5:2; 19:13, 17, 20; 20:16; Acts 21:40; 22:2; 26:14 and others).

Joh 5:2  Now there is in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate a pool, in Aramaic called Bethesda, which has five roofed colonnades.

Joh 19:13  So when Pilate heard these words, he brought Jesus out and sat down on the judgment seat at a place called The Stone Pavement, and in Aramaic Gabbatha.

Joh 19:17  and he went out, bearing his own cross, to the place called The Place of a Skull, which in Aramaic is called Golgotha. 

Joh 20:16  Jesus said to her, “Mary.” She turned and said to him in Aramaic, “Rabboni!” (which means Teacher). 



FOR GENERAL READING: (From Dr. Steven Anderson)

[  Aramaic was originally the language of the Arameans, who were comprised of tribes that lived along the Euphrates River. Two of the most prominent of these tribes were the Syrians to the northwest, and the Chaldeans to the southeast. The word Aramaic is derived from Aram, a son of Shem who was the progenitor of the Arameans. 

In the earliest stages of the history of Aramaic, the language was only spoken in Aramean locales, including the area where Laban lived (cf. Gen 31:47; Deut 26:5). However, as the Syrians and Chaldeans gained prominence in the ancient Near East, their tongue became established as an international language of commerce and diplomacy, gradually displacing Akkadian. Akkadian was still the official language of the Neo-Assyrian Empire, although 2 Kings 18:26 indicates that Aramaic was already becoming established as a lingua franca of the ancient Near East by 700 BC. 

When the Chaldeans subsequently conquered Assyria, it was natural for them to use their own language of Aramaic as the administrative language of the Neo-Babylonian Empire, rather than adopting Akkadian.

This is why Daniel 2:4 says the wise men of Babylon addressed the king in Aramaic, and why the following section of the book of Daniel is written in Aramaic. After the conquest of Babylon by Persia, the Persians also established Aramaic as the official language of their vast empire. This is why the portions of Ezra which record official correspondence are written in Aramaic.

At the time when the books of Daniel and Ezra were written, most Jews could speak and understand both Hebrew and Aramaic. They understood Hebrew as the language spoken at home, among themselves, and in the reading of the Scriptures, while Aramaic was the language spoken in broader society. 

Over time, Aramaic replaced Hebrew as the primary language spoken by the Jews who lived in Palestine and regions to the east. The Jews had not learned Aramaic in Palestine (cf. 2 Kgs 18:26), but they had to learn it in exile, since it was the language of their captors. Thus, the parts of the Old Testament which were composed in Aramaic were written in that language as a result of the Babylonian captivity.

Because of this, Aramaic was the native tongue of our Lord; Hebrew was rarely used as a spoken language by Jews of the first century AD. 

There are several places where the Gospel writers preserve quotations from Jesus in the original Aramaic, including His cry from the cross, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabacthani? (Mark 15:34). These words expressed Christ’s deepest feelings at a time of great personal anguish and emotion. That He spoke these words from Psalm 22:1 in Aramaic, rather than from the Hebrew original or the Greek Septuagint translation, shows that Aramaic was the language that He knew most intimately.

Thus, the New Testament preserves Aramaic words because Aramaic was the mother tongue of Palestinian Jews in the first century AD.

While Hebrew was used sparingly outside of the Bible, Aramaic was used very broadly. There is a huge corpus of Aramaic literature. From about 600 BC until AD 700, Aramaic was the primary trade language of the ancient Near East. It was also the primary spoken language of Palestine, Syria, and Mesopotamia at the time of Christ. 

Aramaic was only displaced by Arabic when the Muslims conquered the Middle East—though the language never died out completely, and is still spoken in pockets of Syria, Iraq, Iran, and Turkey. Aramaic is possibly the language with the longest continuous written record in the world.

Because of the broad use of Aramaic outside of the Bible, there is rarely any doubt about the meaning of words or constructions in biblical Aramaic, as there are many opportunities to research their usage in extra-biblical literature.

Although there is only a limited amount of biblical material composed in Aramaic, the influence of the Aramaic language is felt throughout the Old and New Testaments, as it was present in the background from Genesis until Revelation. Aramaic also had a prominent place in the early church and in post-biblical Judaism. But insofar as it is directly used in the Bible, Aramaic is the language of the captivity and of the Redeemer. ]